• BearOfaTime@lemm.ee
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    2
    arrow-down
    2
    ·
    edit-2
    28 days ago

    Doesn’t “idiot’s” in this example show possession?

    And the “Johnson’s” is a plural?

    Or do I misunderstand what you’re trying to say saying?

    • BumpingFuglies@lemmy.zip
      link
      fedilink
      English
      arrow-up
      9
      ·
      28 days ago

      In English, apostrophes are only used for possession and to indicate missing letters (usually vowels), as in contractions.

      My example showed apostrophes incorrectly being used for non-possessive plural nouns. I used a proper noun (“Johnson”) and a common one (“pizza”) to better illustrate my point.

      • BearOfaTime@lemm.ee
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        2
        ·
        27 days ago

        Thanks.

        Wanted to make sure I was getting what you were puttin’ down.

        Yea, the rules are pretty clear, at least I always thought so.

        Kind of telling that so many people can’t be bothered to understand it.

        • BumpingFuglies@lemmy.zip
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          3
          ·
          27 days ago

          Nah, it’s pretty simple. Pronouns don’t use apostrophes for possession; they only use them for contractions like “it’s”.